Question: I came across a supposed contradiction that has stumped me. John 1 "seems" to say Jesus was baptized between verses 34 and 35. Verse 35 says "again the next day..." (day one). Verse 43: "the following day" (day two). Chapter 2, verse 1 says on "the third day...in Cana of Galilee...." So John seems to say that Jesus was in Cana three days after His baptism, even though John doesn't mention His baptism. The other gospels seem to say that Jesus went to the wilderness for 40 days right after His baptism (Matthew:3:13-11
See All...). Mark:1:9And it came to pass in those days, that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized of John in Jordan.
See All... tells us that Jesus was baptized, while verse 12 says "immediately" the Spirit drove him into the wilderness; Luke seems to also say that Jesus went to the wilderness after he was baptized. The question is "Where was Jesus three days after His baptism?"
Response: Paul admonishes in 2 Timothy:2:15Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
See All..., "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth." In view of this, what is the context of these verses and how might they rightly be divided?
We don't believe this is a contradiction, particularly since John's discourse regarding Christ (Jn:1:29-36 [29] The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
[30] This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me.
[31] And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.
[32] And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.
[33] And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.
[34] And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God.
[35] Again the next day after John stood, and two of his disciples;
[36] And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God!
See All...) speaks of the baptism as past tense. After identifying Jesus as the lamb "which taketh away the sin of the world" (v. 29), John states "I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him" (v. 32). He's speaking of an event that has already occurred. Consequently, we see no contradiction in the other gospels that speak of the Lord's temptation in the wilderness following shortly thereafter. John 1 is speaking of a separate event, and one that took place after those recorded in the other gospels.